Browse all practice questions for the E-6 Board Situational Practice Test. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

E-6 Board Situational Practice Test course image
All questions

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

  • A postoperative patient with a chest tube has diminished breath sounds at the right posterior base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • In a motor vehicle crash with closed chest trauma, diminished breath sounds are most likely due to which complication?
  • Which pressure measurement is used to estimate left-sided filling pressures?
  • Explain the purpose of leave and liberty policies in the Navy.
  • In acute renal failure, medications that are normally excreted by the kidneys should be:
  • What is the purpose of a FITREP/EVAL, and who signs it?
  • SBAR stands for which communication framework?
  • Enteral feeding in acute renal failure commonly includes which dietary modifications?
  • In acute renal failure, which dietary modification is commonly included in enteral feeding?
  • What is the correct sequence when responding to a man overboard drill?
  • An elevated CVP most commonly indicates which condition?
  • What is the essential practice to reduce ventilator-associated pneumonia risk during suctioning?
  • What is an essential duty of a Navy watchstander during a bridge watch?
  • Which type of counseling focuses on a single incident and its impact on performance?
  • When documenting an injury or near-miss, what key details should you include?
  • Which format best supports performance evaluations, balancing objective evidence with observed outcomes?
  • What is the primary purpose of a training plan in a Navy setting?
  • What is a valid recommendation in an eval, and who can make one?
  • In the first few hours after surgery, an excessive chest tube drainage is defined as how many milliliters per hour?
  • When administering tube feedings, what is the most important action to prevent aspiration?
  • Interpret the arterial blood gas: pH 7.4, PaO2 98 mmHg, PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L. What is the acid-base status?
  • In adults, a positive Babinski sign indicates which of the following?
  • In ORM, which step comes immediately after assessing hazards?
  • Which dosing option reflects the amiodarone regimen for sustained ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
  • What is OPSEC and why is it critical to mission success?
  • Which finding is most consistent with atelectasis in a postoperative patient with a chest tube?
  • How should you handle a sailor’s request for family emergency leave?
  • Which symptom is a classic early sign of digoxin toxicity?
  • Which channel is typically used to report SHARP incidents?
  • In renal failure, which electrolyte abnormality is commonly monitored due to associated ECG changes including tall peaked T waves?
  • Which statement best describes elements typically included in a training plan?
  • How should you respond if you receive a suspected security breach or leak?
  • Protamine sulfate is the antidote to which anticoagulant?
  • Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?
  • Elevated cardiac isoenzymes are most strongly associated with which condition?
  • How should a supervisor address a sailor who is repeatedly late but has a valid personal issue?
  • What is the difference between direct and indirect supervision?
  • What is the initial drug treatment for sustained ventricular tachycardia when a pulse is present?
  • What is the most important nursing action for a patient diagnosed with cervical spinal cord injury?
  • What key elements should be included in a shipboard safety briefing?
  • Which are the Navy's three core values?
  • Which step of a standard counseling session focuses on agreeing to specific actions and scheduling follow-up?
  • A pacing stimulus that lands on which part of the cardiac cycle is potentially dangerous?
  • In acutely ill patients with diabetes mellitus, the insulin dose is typically:
  • Pacing stimulus lands on the T wave can precipitate which dangerous arrhythmia?
  • Which policy covers sexual harassment and assault prevention in the Navy?
  • What best describes the importance of standards of conduct in a team?
  • Which option best describes the opening step of a counseling session?
  • What is the role of ORM in planning a training exercise?
  • Which symptoms are typical of hypoglycemia?
  • What are typical indicators of a potential ethics violation in a unit?
  • What is considered the most important part of the neurological check?
  • Which communication technique is most effective for giving clear, actionable instructions?
  • Who can make a valid recommendation in an evaluation?
  • Normal PAOP is 6-12. Which option correctly lists this range?
  • In the absence of an advance directive, who typically makes medical decisions when a patient cannot communicate?
  • For NPH insulin, when would you expect hypoglycemia to occur?
  • Which statement best describes the outcome of effective watchbill management?
  • What is a common adverse effect to monitor with dobutamine infusion?
  • How does feedback differ from criticism in a counseling session?
  • Which window is guideline-appropriate for thrombolysis in eligible stroke patients?
  • How are leave and liberty records documented?
  • The pulmonary artery occlusive wedge pressure (PAOP) reflects pressure in which chamber?
  • Provide a general example of Article 92 in practice.
  • Which combination is used to manage hemodynamic compromise due to cardiogenic shock?
  • Which sequence correctly represents the recommended order when preparing a brief for command?
  • Which finding characterizes deepening intracranial pressure?
  • Which finding is considered normal in the immediate postoperative period after abdominal surgery?
  • What is a primary outcome of an after-action review?
  • The combination of Nipride and dobutamine is associated with which hemodynamic effect?
  • If a patient becomes apneic and pulseless and the monitor shows asystole, which drug is typically given first?
  • A postoperative craniotomy patient with normal fasting glucose but extreme thirst and urine output exceeding 1000 mL in two hours is most consistent with which condition?
  • If a patient with an endotracheal tube can speak audibly, the most appropriate initial nursing action is to:
  • What is the best method to verify safe placement of an nasogastric tube?
  • What are the five steps of Operational Risk Management (ORM) used in the Navy?
  • Low intermittent suction of gastric contents is not generally used in which situation?
  • Which of the following is NOT an essential duty of a Navy watchstander during a bridge watch?
  • Which symptom is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure?
  • Which practice does NOT help decrease catheter-associated urinary tract infections?
  • In a patient with closed chest trauma from a motor vehicle collision, which finding would most strongly suggest a pneumothorax?
  • Which ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
  • How is a risk decision determined within ORM steps?
  • Before suctioning a patient, you should adjust the vacuum pressure to 120 mmHg of what type of pressure?
  • To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia, what is the most important nursing action?
  • A health care power of attorney has the right to which of the following?
  • In managing cardiogenic shock, which option best expresses the goal of optimizing renal perfusion?
  • Which condition is an indication for external cardiac pacing?
  • Which statement best describes the method to verify endotracheal tube placement on initial assessment?
  • What is the difference between security and OPSEC in military terms?
  • Pulmonary artery occlusive wedge pressure reflects pressure in which chamber?
  • What is the significance of watchbill management in a unit?
  • During potent antihypertensive infusions, which adverse effect should be monitored closely?
  • Describe a situation in which leadership by example would be most effective.
  • How would you approach enforcing a policy while maintaining unit morale?
  • What is the recommended approach to handle a conflict between two sailors on your team?
  • When conducting a performance evaluation, what should ratings be based on?
  • In adults, a positive Babinski sign is best described as which of the following?
  • Which medication's dosage should be tapered slowly to prevent acute adrenal insufficiency?
  • Initial measures for treatment of angina typically include nitroglycerin, oxygen, and rest. Which of the following is not part of the initial measures?
  • What is the purpose of a mishap investigation and who should participate?
  • Oxygen therapy during acute coronary syndrome is indicated primarily for patients who are:
  • Name two common sources for learning about Navy equal opportunity policies.
  • A QRS complex longer than 0.12 seconds indicates which conduction abnormality?
  • What is the antidote for heparin?
  • What is the purpose of OPSEC analysis during operations?
  • After a man overboard drill, what is the value of documenting the drill and outcomes?
  • When asystole is identified, which management step is appropriate?
  • What are the four steps of a standard counseling session?
  • During acute angina management, which medication is typically given for immediate relief of chest pain?
  • Which symptom profile after neurosurgery most strongly suggests diabetes insipidus?
  • What is the purpose of an after-action review after a drill or exercise?
  • Which medication is commonly used to rate-control atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response?
  • Which of the following is a classic sign of diabetic ketoacidosis?
  • In a patient with a cervical spine injury, which physiologic parameter requires the most careful observation?
  • A trauma patient four days after a fracture develops sudden shortness of breath. Which diagnosis is most likely?
  • Which drug will crystallize if given IV with a dextrose-containing solution?
  • If radiographic confirmation of an NG tube is not immediately available, which test is commonly used to assess placement?
  • In the treatment of cardiogenic shock, what is the major therapeutic goal?
  • When is it appropriate to escalate a safety concern to higher authority?
  • In risk decisions, which approach balances likelihood and severity when selecting a mitigation in ORM?
  • What steps should be taken to ensure a new sailor understands safety protocols?
  • An elevated PAOP most commonly indicates which condition?
  • When assessing the position of an endotracheal tube, what is the most important nursing action?
  • Which would you NOT give to someone in a DKA coma?
  • In a 150-pound adult, the normal urine output is approximately how many milliliters per hour?
  • Which scenario would NOT trigger a high pressure alarm on a respirator?
  • Which component should you include when preparing a brief to the chain of command?
  • In the UCMJ, what does Article 92 address?
  • Under Equal Opportunity policies, prohibited harassment is conduct that is unwelcome, based on a protected class, and what effect on the workplace?
  • What is the most important step in preventing central venous catheter–related sepsis?
  • IV phenytoin should be administered in which solvent to avoid precipitation?
  • What is the proper approach to delegating tasks while maintaining accountability?
  • What is the general standard for fitness for duty in Navy operations?
  • A patient with acute renal failure develops sudden dyspnea and sinus tachycardia. This most likely indicates which of the following?
  • Which condition is an indication for external cardiac pacing in emergencies?
  • In a standard counseling session, which step involves discussing the issue and its impact with the subordinate?
  • What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
  • How should you handle a subordinate who inadvertently discloses sensitive information?
  • CVP reading directly reflects pressure in which chamber?
  • Which statement is incorrect regarding the acute phase treatment of stroke?
  • What action should be taken to ensure ORM remains effective after implementing controls?
  • After removing a line, how long should pressure be held?
  • If you notice a subordinate not following safety procedures during a drill, what is your immediate action?
  • A patient on a ventilator triggers a low volume alarm. What is the most likely cause?
  • What constitutes prohibited harassment under Equal Opportunity policies?
  • During diabetic ketoacidosis management, which step is essential before initiating insulin therapy?
  • What is the earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure?
  • Dobutamine is primarily used to increase which aspect of cardiac performance?
  • A systolic murmur heard best at the right second intercostal space is most consistent with which condition?
  • Why are standards of conduct important in daily duties?
  • What describes the chain of command and its importance in a crisis?
  • Psychophysiological stress in acute illness and ICU care can lead to which change in kidney function?
  • Which osmotic agent is commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in emergencies?
  • In a counseling session, what characterizes constructive feedback?
  • Elevated cardiac isoenzymes are generally not observed in which condition?
  • When administering tPA, which finding would prompt stopping the medication?
  • The mean pulmonary artery pressure is typically which range?
  • How would you conduct a resource-austerity exercise to meet readiness while saving costs?
  • In a fitness environment, what does PT readiness include?
  • If you notice a conflict of interest affecting decisions, what is the appropriate course of action?
  • Which laboratory finding increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
  • Which combination therapy is used to reduce afterload and improve contractility in shock?
  • A trauma patient four days after fracture suddenly develops shortness of breath. The most likely diagnosis is?
  • Which insulin type typically has a peak action within 2 to 4 hours?
  • When you identify a potential spill hazard, what is your immediate action if trained?
  • Which action is NOT part of the five ORM steps?
  • What is a department head's primary responsibility in a Navy division?
  • Nipride (nitroprusside) is best described as which type of agent?
  • Which type of counseling is used to address ongoing or recurring performance issues?
  • Which step directly follows the 'Discuss issue and impact' stage in a standard counseling session?
  • Why is it important to maintain accurate and timely administrative records?
  • In a 150-pound adult, which option best describes normal hourly urine output?
  • Which item is NOT typically included in a shipboard safety briefing?
  • Which of the following is a recommended measure to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections?
  • The parameter most often used to estimate left-sided filling pressures in the heart is which of the following?
  • Normal pulmonary artery pressure is approximately which of the following?
  • A typical PAOP value suggests normal left-sided filling pressure is which range?
  • Which hemodynamic effect is commonly observed with nitroprusside use in acute heart failure?
  • IV dopamine requires caution because infiltration can lead to
  • What is the drug of choice to reduce intracranial pressure?
Subscribe

Get the latest from Passetra

You can unsubscribe at any time. Read our privacy policy